Imputation Makes Righteous

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Dikaioo means “to declare righteous” not “to make righteous.” This is accepted by two theologians on either side of the New Perspective discussion, N. T. Wright[1. N. T. Wright, Justification (Downers Grove, IL: IVP Academic, 2009), 91.] and Robert L. Reymond.[2. Robert L. Reymond, A New Systematic Theology of the Christian Faith (Nashville: Thomas Nelson, 1998), 743.]

“Leon Morris points out that ‘verbs ending in [-oo] and referring to moral qualities have a declarative sense; they do not mean “to make __.”‘”[1. Ibid., 743, citing Leon Morris, New Testament Theology (Grand Rapids, MI: Academie, 1986), 70.] Therefore Reymond willingly concedes that justification is “an objective forensic judgment.”[4. Ibid., 743.]

Where’s Room for Imputation?

How then can definitions of justification contain “make” language as one finds in definitions that include imputation of Christ’s righteousness? Consider how Reymond characterizes justification (emphasis original; red text mine):

“[J]ustification refers to God’s wholly objective, wholly forensic judgment concerning the sinner’s standing before the law, by which forensic judgment God declares that the sinner is righteous in his sight because of the imputation of his sin to Christ, on which ground he is pardoned, and the imputation of Christ’s perfect obedience to him, on which ground he is constituted righteous before God.”[5. Ibid., 742, emphasis original.]

“Constituted righteous”? Here constitutive, or “make” language as I’ll call it, creeps in, subsumed under declaration justification. Reymond’s next sentences are helpful for further elucidating this point (emphasis original; red text mine):

“In other words, ‘for the one who does not work, but believes in him who justifies the ungodly’ (Rom. 4:5), God pardons him of all his sins (Acts 10:43; Rom. 4:6-7) and constitutes him righteous by imputing or reckoning the righteousness of Christ to him (Rom. 5:1, 19; 2 Cor. 5:21). And on the basis of his constituting the ungodly man righteous by his act of imputation, God simultaneously declares the ungodly man to be righteous in his sight.”[6. Ibid., 742, emphasis original.]

Here Reymond is clearly defining justification as containing a declarative action and a constitutive action when on the very next page he will approvingly cite Leon Morris’ conclusion that dikaioo and verbs like it “have a declarative sense [and] they do not mean ‘to make’.”

Where’s room for the constitutive language of imputation on this understanding of dikaioo?

Imputation in Rome

If when in Rome one is does as the Romans, imputation is in Rome because it is doing as the Romans.

Reymond repeatedly writes that “justification is an objective forensic judgment, as opposed to a subjective transformation” and backs it up with Deut. 25:1, Job 32:2, Proverbs 17:15, and Luke 7:29.[1. Ibid., 743-744.] He’s attempting to distance the Reformed position as far as possible from “Rome’s tragically defective representation.”[1. Ibid., 741.]

But how is imputation not also “subjective” as Reymond classifies the Roman Catholic understanding of justification which holds to infused righteousness? Imputed and infused are both “subjective,” a understanding that goes against Morris’ definition of dikaioo.

Wright on Dikaioo

Augustine interpreted “justify” as “make righteous.” “That always meant, for Augustine and his followers, that God, in justification, was actually transforming the character of the person. . . .”[1. Wright, Justification, 91.]

Let me just let Wright continue in his own style and words with what he’s saying (emphasis original):

“The result was a subtle but crucial shifting of metaphors: the lawcourt scene is now replaced with a medical one, a kind of remedial spiritual surgery, involving a ‘righteousness implant’ which, like an artificial heart, begins to enable the patient to do things previously impossible.

“But part of Paul’s own language, rightly stressed by those who have analyzed the verb dikaioo, “to justify,” is that it does not denote an action which transforms someone so much as a declaration which grants them a status. It is the status of the person which is transformed by the action of ‘justification,’ not the character. It is in this sense that ‘justification’ ‘makes’ someone ‘righteous,’ just as the officiant at a wedding serve be said to ‘make’ the couple husband and wife . . . .”[1. Ibid., 91.]

In other words, Wright is reiterating the point that justification with a right understanding of dikaioo describes a verdict rather surgery. Imputation like infusion both seem to be surgery.

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Am I missing something?

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7 responses to “Imputation Makes Righteous”

  1. Saint and Sinner Avatar

    You (and Wright) are misunderstanding what the historic Protestant theologians mean by ‘constitute’.

    They define ‘constitute righteous’ as changing one’s legal status from guilty to righteous (or not guilty).

    While there are some Protestant interpreters who have moved to a belief in ‘transformative righteousness’ (i.e. pre-2000 T. Schreiner, Thielman, etc.), most Protestant theologians maintain a ‘purely legal’ doctrine of justification (see esp. post-2000 Tom Schreiner, Douglas Moo, etc.).

    This makes Wright’s caricature of historic Protestant theology as teaching something like a “gas being passed across the court-room” even more a straw-man.

    The fact that Wright gives a complete straw-man of the opposing side should give everyone pause before we simply accept what he says.

    1. drew Avatar

      Hey S&S, thanks for taking the time to help clarify the discussion. What you’re describing as the historic understanding of constitutive language, however, seems to blur the distinction between constitution and declaration that appears in Reymond’s quotation above. In other words, I have trouble seeing how what you describe as their understanding of “constitute” differs from declaration. Granted Reymond says they occur simulataneously, but indeed they must be two and not one, for otherwise there would not be anything to occur simultaneously. Hopefully, you can help me on this. Thanks!

  2. Saint and Sinner Avatar

    Here’s Douglas Moo’s comments on Romans 5:19 (“For just as through the disobedience of the one man were the many made sinners, so also through the obedience of the one will the many be made righteous.”) from his commentary:

    “Debate surrounds the exact meaning of the verb Paul uses here. Some argue that it means nothing more than “make.” But this translation misses the forensic flavor of the word. It often means “appoint,” and probably refers here to the fact that people are “inaugurated into” the state/righteousness. Paul is insisting that people were really “made” sinners through Adam’s act of disobedience just as they are really “made righteous” through Christ’s obedience. This “making righteous,” however, must be interpreted in the light of Paul’s typical forensic categories. To be “righteous” does not mean to be morally upright, but to be judged acquitted, cleared of all charges, in the heavenly judgment. Through Christ’s obedient act, people become really righteous; but “righteous” itself is a legal, not a moral, term in this context.” (Romans, NICNT, p.345)

    And in one of his footnotes:

    “The verb is kathistemi. In the NT, it means “bring, conduct” (Acts 17:15), “appoint” (seven times in the Gospels; four times in Acts; three times in Hebrews; Tit. 1:5) or “make,” “constitute” (Jas. 3:6; 4:4; 2 Pet. 1:8). On the legal connotations of the verb, see MM. Some commentators (e.g., Zahn; Hodge; Shedd) may go too far in stressing the forensic force of the word to the neglect of the actual state of affairs it seems always to suggest (see A. Oepke, TDNT III, 445).” (p.345n144) [Hodge and Shedd were Reformed systematic theologians of the past.]

    As to Reymond’s quotation of 2 Cor. 5:21:

    Reymond holds to the *historic* ‘Old Perspective’ which says that the sinner exchanges his legal life record of sins for Christ’s legal life record of righteousness (i.e. the interpretation of “the righteousness of God”). Thus, the sinner is constituted righteous because when God looks upon him at the Judgment, He looks at the righteous life record of Christ (and no longer at the sinner’s past life record).

    The newer (and what I consider to be a more nuanced and faithful to Pauline theology) view of imputation (still OPP) says that the sinner’s legal record is given to Christ (and thus Christ is executed), and because of that, being forgiven of sin (cf. Col. 2:13-14) and consequently having the status of ‘righteous’ (cf. ‘perfected’ in Hebrews 10:14), God declares the sinner righteous (which is the same as acquitting the sinner of the charge of having broken His commandments). The “righteousness of God” would then be the status and consequent declaration of ‘righteous.’

    The historic OPP sees the first and second parts (‘made him to be sin’ and ‘become the righteousness of God’) as two different actions (but which happen simultaneously in justification). The newer OPP sees the second as a consequence of the first.

    The historic OPP sees the exchange spoken of in 2 Corinthians 5:21 as an exchange of legal documents whereas the newer OPP sees it as an exchange of legal status. See Murray J. Harris’ commentary (NIGTC; esp. the footnotes) on this passage.

    It’s a slight difference, but the latter fits Paul’s language far better.

    I hope I didn’t just confuse you even more. Feel free to ask any other questions you might have.

  3. Philip Avatar
    Philip

    I don’t think the NT ever says the moral righteousness or legal status of Jesus is imputed to the believer. You’ll search in vain for that idea if you exegete contextually. I have yet to find any reference in Paul to Jesus’ righteousness. Let me know where Paul talks about the righteousness specifically of Jesus, the second person of the Trinity. All I can find are abstract references to righteousness itself and references to the righteousness of God, which in Paul’s language refers to the Father, not the Son. Maybe I’m missing something obvious. Why do we assume it has to be the righteousness of another person and not just the status of being righteous? While I don’t agree with everything in Wright’s new book on Justification, I think his exegesis is more solid than the “traditional” view.

  4. John Thomson Avatar

    Christ in his death took the penalty for my sins. As a result I am declared in God’s court acquitted/innocent/righteous. Though some wish to say a verdict of acquittal is not the same as being declared righteous there is no good reason for so saying (except to import systematic but unfounded notions of imputation of Christ’s active obedience). In resurrection Christ is declared to be righteous by God (he is vindicated), however, since we are united to him we share in that vindication and thus in God’s declaration of righteousness.

    The righteousness of God is revealed in the gospel. It is this that saves and no other. In Roms 3 we are told what this righteousness of God is. It entails the redeeming and propitiating sacrifice of Christ on the cross through which God is seen to be righteous and makes righteous all who trust in Christ. It is God’s saving righteousness fully accomplished in the death of Christ.

    If IAO is involved in God’s righteousness we would expect of all places for it to be present in Roms 3 – the nuclear passage in Scripture on the righteousness of God. But it is not. Given the present stress on the centrality of IAO it is conspicuous by its absence.

    It is not the life of Christ on earth that demonstrates the righteousness of God (his life demonstrates his own righteousness) it is his death. On this matter of imputed righteousness Wright is to be preferred to Piper etc though I greatly esteem Piper. Indeed, if justification relates to Christ’s life at all, it is to his resurrected life for he was delivered for our offences and raised for our justification.

  5. John Thomson Avatar

    Sorry. In the above comment I missed out my name by mistake.

    Christ in his death took the penalty for my sins. As a result I am declared in God’s court acquitted/innocent/righteous. Though some wish to say a verdict of acquittal is not the same as being declared righteous there is no good reason for so saying (except to import systematic but unfounded notions of imputation of Christ’s active obedience). In resurrection Christ is declared to be righteous by God (he is vindicated), however, since we are united to him we share in that vindication and thus in God’s declaration of righteousness.

    The righteousness of God is revealed in the gospel. It is this that saves and no other. In Roms 3 we are told what this righteousness of God is. It entails the redeeming and propitiating sacrifice of Christ on the cross through which God is seen to be righteous and makes righteous all who trust in Christ. It is God’s saving righteousness fully accomplished in the death of Christ.

    If IAO is involved in God’s righteousness we would expect of all places for it to be present in Roms 3 – the nuclear passage in Scripture on the righteousness of God. But it is not. Given the present stress on the centrality of IAO it is conspicuous by its absence.

    It is not the life of Christ on earth that demonstrates the righteousness of God (his life demonstrates his own righteousness) it is his death. On this matter of imputed righteousness Wright is to be preferred to Piper etc though I greatly esteem Piper. Indeed, if justification relates to Christ’s life at all, it is to his resurrected life for he was delivered for our offences and raised for our justification.

  6. John Thomson Avatar

    Re alien righteousness and ‘legal fiction’ I suggest the following.

    In the death of Christ not only are my sins borne but my history in Adam comes to an end. I die. In his resurrection I live again. I have a completely new nature that cannot sin. In a sense this is the real me. My new nature is righteous and holy made in the true image of God. It is this ‘me’ that will survive into the life to come – a ‘me’ that is truly righteous.

    Thus the declaration of righteousness through Christ’s death is no legal fiction for my resurrection life is in fact completely righteous.

    I thow this out as a suggestion and invite criticism.

    Thus

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